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Pass Guaranteed Quiz 2025 PRMIA First-grade 8020: ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Practice Exam Pdf
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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Topic
Details
Topic 1
- Risk Information: This section of the exam measures the skills of Risk Managers and covers the collection, analysis, and communication of risk-related data. It highlights the role of data-driven decision-making in mitigating uncertainties and ensuring compliance. A key skill measured is interpreting risk data for informed decision-making.
Topic 2
- Introduction: This section of the exam measures the skills of Risk Analysts and covers fundamental concepts of risk governance, management, and assessment. It introduces key principles, regulatory frameworks, and industry best practices for identifying and addressing risks. A key skill measured is understanding the foundational principles of risk management.
Topic 3
- Risk Modeling: This section of the exam measures the skills of Quantitative Risk Analysts and covers mathematical and statistical techniques used to predict risk scenarios. It explores model development, validation, and application in financial and operational risk management. A key skill measured is applying statistical models for risk prediction.
Topic 4
- Risk Assessment: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Risk Analysts and covers methodologies for evaluating risks in different domains, including qualitative and quantitative approaches. It focuses on assessing vulnerabilities, threats, and potential impacts on business operations. A key skill measured is conducting risk impact analysis for financial threats.
PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q50-Q55):
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the Basel Accords, published in 2004, introduced operational risk as a risk subjected to a capital charge?
- A. Basel II
- B. Basel III
- C. Basel I
- D. Basel IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Introduction of Operational Risk in Basel Accords
Basel I (1988) → Focused only on credit risk and market risk; operational risk was not yet included.
Basel II (2004) → Introduced operational risk as a separate category, subject to capital requirements.
Basel III (2010) → Strengthened capital and liquidity requirements but did not introduce operational risk.
Basel IV (2017, still evolving) → Adjusts Basel III reforms but does not introduce operational risk as a new category.
Why Answer B is Correct
Basel II (2004) was the first to introduce operational risk as a risk requiring a capital charge.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basel I
Incorrect - Basel I focused on credit risk and market risk, with no capital requirements for operational risk.
C . Basel III
Incorrect - Basel III strengthened Basel II but did not introduce operational risk.
D . Basel IV
Incorrect - Basel IV refines Basel III but does not introduce operational risk as a new capital charge.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II (2004) Operational Risk Framework
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is a correct statement about control rating scales?
- A. A control rating scale should consider neither control effectiveness or control performance.
- B. They are enhanced by the use of software that includes inherent risk.
- C. A control rating scale should consider both control effectiveness and control performance.
- D. A control rating scale should consider control effectiveness but not control performance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Definition of Control Rating Scales
Control rating scales measure the effectiveness and performance of risk management controls.
They help organizations evaluate control strength and identify weaknesses.
Key Components
Control effectiveness → Measures how well the control mitigates risks.
Control performance → Assesses whether the control operates as designed in practice.
Why Answer C is Correct
Both effectiveness and performance are crucial for assessing control reliability.
A control may be designed effectively but fail in execution, making both factors essential.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . They are enhanced by the use of software that includes inherent risk.
Incorrect - Software can improve ratings, but control scales are based on evaluation criteria, not just software tools.
B . A control rating scale should consider control effectiveness but not control performance.
Incorrect - Ignoring performance could lead to misjudging actual control reliability.
D . A control rating scale should consider neither control effectiveness nor control performance.
Incorrect - This would render the control rating scale useless.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance and Control Framework
Basel Operational Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 52
For the Barings case study, segregation of duties was an issue. How did this present itself in this case?
- A. A trader was responsible for managing the back-office.
- B. A trader was responsible for managing the expense account.
- C. A risk manager was responsible for managing the back-office
- D. A trader was responsible for managing the front-office.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Background of the Barings Case Study
Nick Leeson, a trader at Barings Bank, caused the collapse of the institution due to unauthorized trading in derivatives.
A critical failure was the lack of segregation of duties, allowing Leeson to both execute trades (front-office) and oversee trade settlement (back-office).
How Segregation of Duties Failed
Proper segregation of duties ensures that no single individual has unchecked control over trading and settlement.
Leeson was responsible for both trading (front-office) and settlement (back-office), meaning he could hide losses without detection.
Why Answer A is Correct
A trader (Leeson) should never have been managing back-office functions.
His dual role allowed him to manipulate records and bypass controls, leading to $1.3 billion in losses and the bank's collapse.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . A trader was responsible for managing the front-office.
Incorrect - Traders are supposed to manage the front-office; the issue was their involvement in back-office functions.
C . A risk manager was responsible for managing the back-office.
Incorrect - The issue was lack of oversight on the trader, not risk managers handling back-office duties.
D . A trader was responsible for managing the expense account.
Incorrect - The main issue was the trader's control over trade settlement, not expense accounts.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Case Study on Barings Bank Collapse
Basel Principles on Segregation of Duties in Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 53
The DORA act's full name is which of the following?
- A. Digital Operational Resilience Act.
- B. Domain for Operational Risk Act.
- C. Digital Operational Risk Act.
- D. Daily Operational Resilience Act.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of DORA
The Digital Operational Resilience Act (DORA) is a regulation by the European Union (EU) aimed at strengthening the digital resilience of financial institutions.
It establishes a regulatory framework for managing information and communication technology (ICT) risks in the financial sector.
Key Objectives of DORA
Ensures that financial institutions can withstand, respond to, and recover from cyber threats and ICT-related disruptions.
Introduces standards for risk management, incident reporting, and third-party ICT risk oversight.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Domain for Operational Risk Act.
Incorrect - No such regulation exists under this name.
B . Digital Operational Risk Act.
Incorrect - The official name is Digital Operational Resilience Act (DORA).
C . Daily Operational Resilience Act.
Incorrect - DORA is not focused on daily operations but rather long-term digital resilience.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Governance & Digital Resilience Standards
European Commission's Official DORA Regulation
NEW QUESTION # 54
An example of Credit Risk events with an Operational Risk component included?
- A. Failure in loan approval process leading to erroneously approved loans.
- B. Rogue Trading.
- C. Ponzi Schemes & Rogue Trading.
- D. Ponzi Schemes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding Credit Risk with an Operational Risk Component
Credit Risk: Risk of loss due to borrower default.
Operational Risk: Risk of loss due to failed internal processes, fraud, or misconduct.
Step 2: Why Option D is Correct
Ponzi Schemes: Fraudulent investment scams disguise credit risk as legitimate lending but collapse when new funds dry up.
Rogue Trading: Traders take unauthorized risks that can lead to credit defaults or massive financial losses.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Failure in loan approval process") → This is an Operational Risk issue, but does not always create Credit Risk.
Option B ("Ponzi Schemes") → Partially correct, but does not include Rogue Trading, which is also a credit risk-related operational failure.
Option C ("Rogue Trading") → Partially correct, but does not include Ponzi Schemes, which are another key example.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Highlights fraud-based Credit Risk events.
Basel II/III Operational Risk Guidelines - Discusses trading misconduct and credit risk misrepresentation.
Final Conclusion:
Both Ponzi Schemes and Rogue Trading involve credit risk failures caused by operational misconduct, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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